[b-hebrew] Fact of language?

Pere Porta pporta7 at gmail.com
Wed Jun 2 12:32:35 EDT 2010


Karl,
biblical Hebrew and today Hebrew are the same language if for "language" we
understand its inner structure rather than its vocabulary.

Of course in biblical times there were no planes nor cars nor TV nor
computers. All these are present in our life today... so we need a name for
them...

Now my question is: how, by what means, by which way is it possible that an
active pattern (that in the Bible) has become a passive one in today
language?

Maybe I'm mistaken, but I guess  nobody on this list ... knows the answer to
this question...

Pere

On 1 June 2010 20:28, K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com> wrote:

> Pere:
>
> On Fri, May 28, 2010 at 11:00 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 at gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Hi, all.
> > We have in Is 51:9 … But in today Hebrew …
> >
> > Pere Porta
> > (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
> >
>
> Aren’t you mixing different languages?
>
> If Elijah were to return today, would he understand more than just a few
> words at best of modern Israeli Hebrew?
>
> Personally, I can not read a modern newspaper. It is very strange looking,
> besides having unexpected grammatical constructs. So should we expect
> differences as you mentioned?
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
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>



-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)



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