[b-hebrew] Biblical Hebrew orthographical practices in light of epigraphy

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Tue Jun 1 10:42:20 EDT 2010


On Tue, Jun 1, 2010 at 3:32 AM, Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir at gmail.com>wrote:

> Hello Karl, your views on Kitchen are still not relevant to the list.
> However, I
> wanted to correct you on this little bit:
> >> What I wrote above does not intend to suggest that the standard argument
> is
> >> correct.  It just seeks to clarify that the position I voiced is the
> >> standard
> >> position.  Had I said that because it is the standard position, or
> >> that because it
> >> is Kitchen's position, it must be correct, then that would be a
> >> logical fallacy.
> >> But I didn't say that.
> > You certainly implied it.
> No, I did not, nor did I mean to imply it.  Don't accuse me of fallacious
> reasoning because you read something into what I said.

Mentioning the above was irrelevant to the discussion, so why even bring it
up unless you intended it to be an argument in your favor?

The request all along has been for the original data that will support your
contention, and that you have yet to produce any brings up the question,
does any exist? If no original data exist, then what does that say about
your theory?

> Yitzhak Sapir
> Karl W. Randolph.

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