[b-hebrew] Pharaoh Khepera'a in Jeremiah 44:30
wbparsons at alum.mit.edu
Tue Jul 27 17:05:41 EDT 2010
On Tue, 27 Jul 2010 06:07:27 +0200, "Arnaud Fournet" <fournet.arnaud at wanadoo.fr> wrote:
> ----- Original Message ----- From: "Will Parsons" <wbparsons at alum.mit.edu>
> To: <fournet.arnaud at wanadoo.fr>
> Cc: <leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il>; <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Monday, July 26, 2010 10:41 PM
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Pharaoh Khepera'a in Jeremiah 44:30
> > You're too quick to claim proof when there is none. The cuneiform letter
> > you refer to dates to the 18th dynasty, i.e. 14th century BC. "Apries"
> > dates to time of Herodotus, i.e., 5th century BC. That's nine centuries
> > between them; no living language doesn't undergo phonetic changes in that
> > time period, especially vowels. We know the end point of Egyptian rˁ was
> > Coptic ΡΗ/re, and Coptic is closer in time to Herodotus than the 18th
> > dynasty. I would say it's highly *unlikely* that rˁ was still pronounced
> > riˁa at that time.
> > William Parsons
> People disagree on the presence or absence of ayin in Coptic. If we fuse it
> with aleph, then Coptic probably was either ri' or re' depending on the
> dialect, quite possibly with a long vowel rather than a short one.
I have no opinion of the presence or absence of the sound corresponding to
ayin in Coptic. I see no need to postulate that it "fused" with a glottal
stop (which is what I assume you mean by "aleph"). If we ignore the
possible presence of a pharyngial at the end of the word, the Coptic
spelling indicates [re:] with a long vowel. My point was that a
transcription from the 14th century BC cannot be used to claim that "ri`a"
is the pronunciation of the word in the 5th century.
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