George.Athas at moore.edu.au
Sun Jul 11 01:48:05 EDT 2010
I appreciate your suggestion, but would need some firm textual data to acquiesce. Josephus uses the form Ἱεροσόλυμα in his writings, so this seems to be the standard late form, also attested in the New Testament. The LXX uses Ἰερουσαλήμ, and we have a fair idea about when it was translated (3rd to 1st centuries BCE). So, I think you would need to propose either a geographical bias (Egypt preferred Ἰερουσαλήμ) or a double shift (from Ἱεροσόλυμα to Ἰερουσαλήμ and back again). This double shift seems quite odd in my opinion, but stranger things have happened. In either case, you’d need firm textual data from the early Hellenistic era to prove your hypothesis.
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
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