George.Athas at moore.edu.au
Thu Jul 8 05:43:14 EDT 2010
Thanks for the thoughts, Yigal. Does Demsky consider a shift for the toponyms Adoraaim and Shaaraim? That is, does he propose that they originally may have been Ador/Adoram and Shaar? Or is it that these particular toponyms are simply known as being non-singular in form all along? The issue with Jerusalem is that a shift does seem to have occurred.
I see your point about an Aramaism, but how do we account for the change in the first half of the toponym (Ἱεροσόλυμα) to reflect a play on the word temple?
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
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