[b-hebrew] Pr 10:11
kwrandolph at gmail.com
Wed Jul 7 02:45:01 EDT 2010
On Tue, Jul 6, 2010 at 10:33 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 at gmail.com> wrote:
> I read Pr 10:11 in both the Hebrew and the Greek translation LXX and I
> remark that the Greek has "hand" as an equivalence for the Hebrew "mouth"
> (peh, construct pi).
> Is there a good reason to explain this so strong change from Hebrew
> to Greek?
> That’s not the only change between the Hebrew and Greek.
Possibilities include that the text that the LXX translator used had ‘hand’
instead of ‘mouth’, or that it’s just a poor translation for this verse.
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
Karl W. Randolph.
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