[b-hebrew] Yerushalayim, you say? Really?
garthgrenache at hotmail.com
Mon Jul 5 11:04:23 EDT 2010
Dear Yitzhak and all,
Why is it that the Tiberian points indicate that YRWShLM should be pronounced Yerushalayim?
Where is the Y in -La(y)iM?
When a mater is not included we say the spelling is 'defective'.
But a consonantal 'y' is not a mater, is it?
So as the city name is spelled YRWShLM mostly, and only rarely in the later works, YRWShLYM, I suggest that the Y is an added mater for long 'e' (found in Gk LXX/NT and Aramaic spellings), which in Tiberian Hebrew became interpreted as consonantal, and perhaps as part of a dual ending?
What do you think, and what evidence do you have?
How do the non-Tiberian pointing traditions (e.g. Babylonian, Palestinian) point this important name?
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