[b-hebrew] FYI: Aramaic study

Yigal Levin leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il
Wed Dec 29 12:02:09 EST 2010

Fred, you're doing what Jack did earlier. In this case, quoting a history written in the 1940's as if it is the last word on the history of the Hebrew language. As far as your example below, the root MLL meaning "to speak" is not uncommon in Hebrew. For example, Gen. 21:7, Ps. 106:2. It is actually the source of the very common noun Millah, meaning "word". So that anyone fluent in Hebrew would have no problem with that particular Aramaic word. 

Yigal Levin


-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of fred burlingame
Sent: Wednesday, December 29, 2010 6:05 PM
To: Paul Zellmer
Cc: Hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] FYI: Aramaic study

Hello Paul:

I call your attention, by way of example, and not limitation, ... to two
corresponding words; one in hebrew and one in aramaic in the verse in
question, numbers 36:1.

a. the hebrew: וידברו ; and

b. the aramaic: ומלילו

The pronunciation of these two words resemble one another, not. The fluent
hebrew speaker, who cannot speak aramaic, will experience zero comprehension
of the aramaic vocalized here.

And I also observe that some people aside from fred, do disagree with Jack
as to the usage of aramaic in judah in 10 a.d. This author of
jewish history contends hebrew, not aramaic, represented lingua franca on
the streets of judah at that time. see page 681 of the link.



fred burlingame

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