[b-hebrew] pere's question on he/she/him/her

Paul Zellmer pzellmer at sc.rr.com
Sat Dec 18 07:21:27 EST 2010


Pere,

The infinitive in these examples is used, in effect, to make a "noun-like"
word out of a verb.  In English, this is generally done by using the gerund
form (-ing) form of the verb.  When the pronoun is included, that pronoun is
in the form that is used when it is attached to a noun, in other words, the
possessive or "of/by + objective form", rather than the forms when it is
attached to verbs (the subjective or objective).

So, in the four examples here, the "literal" English translation would be:

1.  His doing (or the doing of/by him)

2.  His going up (or the going up of/by him)

3.  Her birthing or her giving birth (or the birthing of her/the giving
birth of/by her)

4.  Her descending (or the descending of/by her)

Hope this helps,

Paul Zellmer

-----Original Message-----

> >Hi, list.
> >When trying to literally translate infinitives with personal suffix (the
> >suffix playing the part of the subject of the infinitive) such as:
>
> >1. (A&OTO -------- Jr 30:24
> >2. (ALOTO -------- Is 11:16
> >3. LIDTAH ---------- Gn 38:27
> >4. RIDTAH --------- Dt 20:20
> >and so on...

-- 
Pere Porta
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