[b-hebrew] Why a whole thread?

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Tue Dec 14 17:32:17 EST 2010


On Tue, Dec 14, 2010 at 9:55 AM, Randall Buth <randallbuth at gmail.com> wrote:

> why was there a whole thread devoted to Song 1.12

Because your proposed answer below makes no sense, as far as we understand

> and trying to read hmlk as a verbal NOUN?

That part (verbal noun) doesn’t make sense to me either.

> A verbal noun phrase would not have needed/
> wanted the sh-.

The phrase in Biblical Hebrew עד אשר (more colloquially -עד ש ) is always
followed either by a verbal phrase (once as a pronoun followed by a
participle, other times a qatal or yiqtol with sometimes an added adverb כה,
אם or לא to modify the verb), or followed by the result of a verb earlier in
the sentence, without a definite article.

> why not recognize that
> sh- (//asher) introduces clauses
> and that here you have a 'verbless clause'?
> which brings one back to the simple ha-melex.

OK, how’d you translate the verse?

> --
> Randall Buth, PhD
> www.biblicalulpan.org
> randallbuth at gmail.com
> Biblical Language Center
> Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life
> Karl W. Randolph.

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