[b-hebrew] Piel or "stative usage of verb"

Randall Buth randallbuth at gmail.com
Thu Oct 8 04:58:03 EDT 2009

vayyixtov Karl
>First of all, is this piel? How do you know? Why should we consider it a
>piel? (Remember, for this discussion, you cannot use the Masoretic points.)

Maybe someone could consider p.l.s. to be a pi`el
because a qal has neven been attested in the whole history of the language.

Could the language have created/used a 'qal', either a pa`el or a
pa`al? Surely.
But we don't know that it did, and we don't know what it would have meant if
it had been used.
While always possible, such speculation achieves widespread acceptance
about as often as textual emendations that have no ancient support.


Randall Buth, PhD
randallbuth at gmail.com
Biblical Language Center
Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life

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