[b-hebrew] The meaning of a 2nd pers jussive

Phil Sumpter philsumpter at hotmail.com
Fri Jul 31 12:21:35 EDT 2009


The first verb in Ps 51:9 is apparently a jussive in the second person. Andersen-Forbes and van der Merwe define the jussive as "an indirect command to the 3rd (and sometimes 2nd) person." In what sense is >tkhatteini< "indirect"? If it just means "cleanse me," then what distinguishes it semantically from a normal imperative?

Philip Sumpter

http://narrativeandontology.blogspot.com/


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