[b-hebrew] Is the Massoretic text distant from the Latin Vulgate
J.Read-2 at sms.ed.ac.uk
Mon Jul 20 12:05:21 EDT 2009
I forgot to mention this source:
which calls into question whether Jerome actually even ever knew Hebrew.
Quoting schmuel <schmuel at nyc.rr.com>:
> Hi Folks,
> There are so many difficulties in the post by James that I do not
> know exactly where to begin.
> However I would like to ask him about one factual assertion to start.
>> James Read J.Read
>> 8) Jerome (4th century) claims to have based his Vulgate translation
>> on the Hebrew text yet there is more agreement with derivative
>> manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate with the aforementioned dead
>> sea scroll texts, the Greek versions and the Samaritan Pentateuch than
>> with the MT
> James, putting aside Psalms where Jerome has multiple translations
> from differing sources, please indicate the basis for your claiming
> this distance from the Vulgate OT and the Masoretic Text. And the
> Latin supposed affinity to the Greek, or the Pentateuch, or some DSS,
> against the Masoretic Text.
> Since we have a decent English translation of the Vulgate in the
> Douay OT and that can be compared with the English translations of
> the Masoretic Text such as the King James Bible, you can simply show
> some of these major differences .. sections and verses where the
> Latin --> English aligns against the Masoretic Text.
> Or if you want to claim that the Douay OT is distant from the 4th
> century Latin, please give your historical and textual explanation.
> Steven Avery
> Queens, NY
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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