[b-hebrew] Is the Massoretic text distant from the Latin Vulgate
schmuel at nyc.rr.com
Mon Jul 20 00:22:50 EDT 2009
There are so many difficulties in the post by James that I do not
know exactly where to begin.
However I would like to ask him about one factual assertion to start.
>James Read J.Read
>8) Jerome (4th century) claims to have based his Vulgate translation
>on the Hebrew text yet there is more agreement with derivative
>manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate with the aforementioned dead
>sea scroll texts, the Greek versions and the Samaritan Pentateuch than
>with the MT
James, putting aside Psalms where Jerome has multiple translations
from differing sources, please indicate the basis for your claiming
this distance from the Vulgate OT and the Masoretic Text. And the
Latin supposed affinity to the Greek, or the Pentateuch, or some DSS,
against the Masoretic Text.
Since we have a decent English translation of the Vulgate in the
Douay OT and that can be compared with the English translations of
the Masoretic Text such as the King James Bible, you can simply show
some of these major differences .. sections and verses where the
Latin --> English aligns against the Masoretic Text.
Or if you want to claim that the Douay OT is distant from the 4th
century Latin, please give your historical and textual explanation.
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