[b-hebrew] Is the Massoretic text distant from the Latin Vulgate

schmuel schmuel at nyc.rr.com
Mon Jul 20 00:22:50 EDT 2009


Hi Folks,

There are so many difficulties in the post by James that I do not 
know exactly where to begin.
However I would like to ask him about one factual assertion to start.

>James Read J.Read
>8) Jerome (4th century) claims to have based his Vulgate translation 
>on the Hebrew text yet there is more agreement with derivative
>manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate with the aforementioned dead 
>sea  scroll texts, the Greek versions and the Samaritan Pentateuch than
>with the MT

James, putting aside Psalms where Jerome has multiple translations 
from differing sources, please indicate the basis for your claiming 
this distance from the Vulgate OT and the Masoretic Text.  And the 
Latin supposed affinity to the Greek, or the Pentateuch, or some DSS, 
against the Masoretic Text.

Since we have a decent English translation of the Vulgate in the 
Douay OT and that can be compared with the English translations of 
the Masoretic Text such as the King James Bible, you can simply show 
some of these major differences .. sections and verses where the 
Latin --> English aligns against the Masoretic Text.

Or if you want to claim that the Douay OT is distant from the 4th 
century Latin, please give your historical and textual explanation.

Thanks.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
Queens, NY





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