amkjudaica at hotmail.com
Thu Apr 23 12:13:45 EDT 2009
is the idea of matres lectiones any more of a modern understanding than the understanding that every consonant might have been followed by a vowel?
also, i thought (but could be wrong) that ancient texts without mater lectiones are extant from cognate languages. i.e., it's not a modern "understanding"?
> Date: Thu, 23 Apr 2009 09:04:37 -0700
> From: kwrandolph at gmail.com
> To: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit
> On Thu, Apr 23, 2009 at 8:18 AM, AMK Judaica <amkjudaica at hotmail.com> wrote:
> > karl,
> > you wrote, "every consonant was followed by a vowel. As such, your name may
> > originally have been “Re-be-qa-he” with the stress on the penultimate
> > syllable."
> > i thought the terminal heh is not a consonant in this case, but rather a
> > mater lectiones for the vocalization of the previous letter (kuf). if so,
> > why would you put a vowel ("e") after the heh?
> > thanks,
> > ari kinsberg
> > brooklyn, new york
> > That it is a mater lectiones is a modern understanding. But was it always
> so? ... Well?
> We don’t know. Therefore we cannot rule out that it did have a following
> vowel. In reading poetry, the cadence sometimes works out best that it is
> followed by a vowel.
> Oh for a time machine, so we could go back and interview native speakers.
> Karl W. Randolph.
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> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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