[b-hebrew] d of z
dbelot at bigpond.net.au
Thu Oct 9 20:39:57 EDT 2008
Hi to all Hebrew scholars ,may I ask this question...
In 2nd Kgs 19:21 we see a reply from the LORD , to Sennacherib this way
2nd Kgs 19:21 The daughter of Zion has despised you , the daughter of Jerusalem has shaken her head at you behind your back.
This verse is repeated in Is 37:22 , also we find the term "daughter of Zion" used in many places , most obvious is Is 1:8 , Is 52:2 and Is 62:11 would I be out of ordert o consider that this "daughter" is a corporate term for Israel / Judah , after the Rehoboam/Jeroboam split .
And could I thus be able to say that all such terminology was meant to be taken as corporate Israel , or is it splitting Jerusalem and Israel .
And as the term comes direct from the Lord could I thus think that this is a term that he now regards Israel as, the daughter of Zion/Jerusalem
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