pporta at oham.net
pporta at oham.net
Wed Mar 5 12:57:42 EST 2008
But you do not replay to my question: Do you think the suffix -NY plays the
part of the Direct or of the Indirect object of the verb it is attached to?
----- Original Message -----
From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph at gmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, March 04, 2008 6:37 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Eze29:3
> Assuming no corruption of the verse by copyists, it reads "Express and
> thus says the Lord YHWH, Behold I am against you, Pharaoh, Egypt's king,
> great reptile lying in the midst of his Nile, who says, My Nile and my
> potency belong to me, you will cause to consider me." The next verse
> continues, "I will place hooks in your cheek …" continuing more of God's
> actions giving reasons for causing to consider God.
> I read the last verb of the verse as the hiphil, causative form of the
> ($T to consider where the double tau has been contracted as sometimes
> happens in Biblical Hebrew.
> This is my 2¢, now to run and hide. ;-)
> Karl W. Randolph.
> On Mon, Mar 3, 2008 at 10:31 PM, <pporta at oham.net> wrote:
>> At looking at the last part in Ez 29:3 I read:
>> -KJV: My river is mine own and I have it for myself
>> -NAS: My Nile is mine and I myself have made it
>> My Catalan translation (*) reads:
>> -BCI: El Nil és meu, jo m'he creat a mi mateix.
>> What do you think of the true and real sense of this clause?
>> Pharaoh is here saying that he caused the Nile to be his (he is the owner
>> the river or he arranged things so as the Nile to be at his service,
>> or he is saying: .... The Nile is mine and also I created myself! (no
>> of a Creator: I created myself)
>> In grammar terms perhaps the question could be reduced this way:
>> How do you understand the verse final pronoun -NY: as a DIRECT object or
>> an INDIRECT object?
>> (*) Catalan is my mother language.
>> Pere Porta
>> Barcelona (Spain)
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