[b-hebrew] yorenu (Isaiah 28:26)

Yigal Levin leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il
Sun Jun 29 22:39:17 EDT 2008


Dear Gabe,

I'll start at the end. I did not look at the Soncino, but in the Hebrew at 
least, the verse is quoted in full. Take a look at 
http://www.mechon-mamre.org/b/l/l4411.htm - scroll down until you hit  דף 
קה,א גמרא, it's 13 lines bellow that.

Actually, the whole phrase is strange. In the Isaiah passage, the prophet is 
using various planting and sowing imagery, and suddenly comes this short 
verse, which in Hebrew is only 4 words - "He ties him to judgement, his God 
teaches him". The Sanhedrin passage understands Isaiah as a call to Israel 
to repent, and thus translates in the plural: Israel = them. No mystery 
there. The original Isaiah passage, however, is worded in the singular - "He 
ties HIM to judgement" is paralelled by "HIS God teaches him".

Yigal Levin




----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Gabe Eisenstein" <gabe at cascadeaccess.com>
To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, June 30, 2008 3:11 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] yorenu (Isaiah 28:26)


> Isaiah 28:26 = /vayisro l'mishpat elohaiv yorenu/
>
> English translations always render something like: "His God
> instructs/chastises him to judgment, and teaches him."
>
> My question concerns deriving "teaches HIM" from  /yorenu/. I would
> think that the translation would be "he will teach US". Yet all the
> translations agree. What am I missing?
>
> Second question: in the Socino Talmud (Sanhedrin 105a), the phrase
> /elohaiv yorenu/ by itself is translated "Let his God teach us". Here at
> least I get the expected "us". But what about the "Let ..."? Why not
> just translate "His God will teach us"? How would this difference  show
> up in Hebrew?
>
> thanks,
> Gabe Eisenstein
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>


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