[b-hebrew] "th" and "b"

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Sat Jun 14 20:12:47 EDT 2008


On Sat, Jun 14, 2008 at 4:10 PM, Yigal Levin <leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:

> Dear Karl,
> While there were differences between Galilean and Judean pronounciations, I
> would actually assume that the differences here are chronological: the
> Greek
> spelling of Bethlehem would have followed the Septuagint of the OT, which
> was about 300 years earlier than the Greek of the NT.
> What are the earliest MMS of the LXX? In other words, could many
transliterations have been "corrected" by later copyists to reflect a later
pronunciation, as it seems were transliterations found in the Coptic
tradition of NT MMS?

> It's like "OT Greek" spelling of the name "Simeon" reflects the Ayin that
> was still pronounced at the time, while NT and Josephus "Simon", rendering
> the same Hebrew spelling, shows that the Ayin was no longer pronounced.
> In the Byzantine tradition, Luke 2:25 has συμεων Simeon.

I just looked up "sabbath" in the Byzantine tradition of NT, and it is
often, if not always except where Greek grammar changed "t" to "s", spelled
as "sabbot". Where did the "th" come from?

> Yigal Levin

Karl W. Randolph.

More information about the b-hebrew mailing list