[b-hebrew] pelesheth hitthra'o'i
gabe at cascadeaccess.com
Wed Jul 9 02:20:07 EDT 2008
You seem to have lost track of my question concerning Sanhedrin 105a,
where the parable of David's objection to the words in Psalm 60 (or
perhaps 108) is found. The Talmud finds something strange or offensive
Are you really saying that the two verses, differing only in the
conjugation of the final word, are using two different verbs? Do you
imagine that one is punning on the other?
By the way, I have been referring to the phrase as "pelesheth
hithro'a'i", but I realize that I should be including the previous word
I have been copying your system for representing Hebrew, but don't
actually know what it is. Is there a common notation on this list?
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