[b-hebrew] to cause to destroy
if at math.bu.edu
Wed Jan 9 01:09:47 EST 2008
It is my understanding that the HI in the hiphil form is the personal
pronoun HI), ‘he’, for the perpetrator of the act, and that the internal I
is similarly a contracted HI) for the “beneficiary” of the act, here $XT.
Thus HI$XIT = HI-$X-HI)-T is already ‘he caused him to be in the state $XT.
A Hebrew word is already a mini sentence including the actors and the act.
The middle HI) is represented by a mere I since an additional consonant
would have confused the root.
Contemporary Hebrew uses the act GARAM for ‘cause’, thus HU) GARAM
L-HA-$XAT-AH is ‘he caused spoiling’.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
----- Original Message -----
From: "kenneth greifer" <greifer at hotmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, January 09, 2008 5:24 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] to cause to destroy
> The hiphil form of the verb spelled shin het tav means "to destroy", even
> though it could mean "to cause to destroy" (I guess). If someone wanted to
> say "to cause to destroy" would they use the hiphil of this verb which was
> not used for that meaning or some other verb that means "to cause to
> destroy" or is their some verb that means "to cause" that would be used
> with the hiphil form of shin het tav? I am confused about hiphil verbs
> sometimes meaning "to cause to do something", and sometimes not meaning
> "to cause to do something", and what happens when you actually want to say
> "to cause to do something" and the hiphil form of the verb doesn't mean
> Kenneth Greifer
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