[b-hebrew] "blood of Jezreel" and "day of Jezreel"

Gabe Eisenstein gabe at cascadeaccess.com
Wed Aug 6 14:30:04 EDT 2008


I'm responding even though I'm not a Hebrew scholar. What I can't see is 
how the grammatical point makes a difference. Even if "Jezreel" is a 
personification analogous to "Israel", wouldn't it stand for a group of 
people, Jezreelites, who were dominated by the royal retinue and 
employees, and who were massacred by Jehu? In other words, it seems to 
me that "blood of Jezreel" (as in KJ) or even "blood of the Jezreelites" 
would still most plausibly point to the massacre.

The idea that the "blood" has not yet been spilled, that it refers only 
to a future invasion of Israel by foreigners and not to crimes committed 
in the past by the house of Jehu, requires a strange reading of 
paqadthi, does it not? It would have to be that God will "visit" (rather 
than "avenge") a punishment on Jeroboam that will consist of bloodshed 
in Jezreel -- why? Both the Bible and archaeology suggest that the royal 
residence in Jezreel was short-lived, and not used by Jeroboam. If it 
isn't a matter of avenging what Jehu did, what's the point?

There is one thing that makes the question intriguing for me, and that 
is perhaps part of your hypothesis? "Great the day of Jezreel", which 
seems to be part of an addendum in verses 10-11, and refers not to any 
massacre OR invasion, but rather to a reunification of Israel and Judah. 
Anybody know how to make sense of it?

Gabe Eisenstein

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