[b-hebrew] The meaning of "the blood of Jezreel" in Hosea 1:4‏ (correction)

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Wed Aug 6 12:59:33 EDT 2008


Dear Leonard:
This sounds like a case typical of grammaticists who like to split hairs.

All the responses so far have had the conclusion that "Jesreel" refers to a
place, not an individual.

As I understand your question, are you asking that the grammatical structure
insists that "Jesreel" be a person? If so, then the responses so far state
"No".

Karl W. Randolph.

2008/8/6 Leonard Jayawardena <leonardj at live.com>

>
> I write to make a correction to my post of today. The first "the blood of
> Jezreel" in the following sentence in the second paragraph: "Let me rephrase
> my question this way: If I said that the usage of the expression "the blood
> of Jezreel" in the Hebrew OT requires or at least strongly supports
> understanding "Jezreel" in "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive
> genitive--I have given details of the basis for this view in the earlier
> post--how would a Hebrew scholar respond to that?"  should be amended to
> "the blood of ...," so that the full sentence reads: "Let me rephrase my
> question this way: If I said that the usage of the expression "the blood of
> ..." in the Hebrew OT requires or at least strongly supports understanding
> "Jezreel" in "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive--I have given
> details of the basis for this view in the earlier post--how would a Hebrew
> scholar respond to that?"
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