[b-hebrew] Hebrew as a Spoken Language vs. Aramaic

dwashbur at nyx.net dwashbur at nyx.net
Mon Oct 29 14:34:10 EDT 2007

Unfortunately, I'm not in a place where I have access to the journals right now, but this looks 
vaguely familiar; I may have read it before, I don't remember for sure.

On 29 Oct 2007 at 10:06, Ken Penner wrote:

> I'm providing a reference for a question Dave asked:
> > Or "ephphatha" in Mark 7:34.  How do you see that relating to 
> > the Hebrew/Aramaic question?
> Isaac Rabinowitz, "ephphatha Mark 7:34 : certainly Hebrew, not Aramaic."  Journal of Semitic Studies, 16 no 2 (1971), 151-156. 

In any case, putting this reference aside, you mentioned "talitha cumi" as a transliterated 
Aramaic phrase.  My actual question is, how do you see transliterated Aramaic phrases 
relating to this whole question?

Dave Washburn
Why do it right when you can do it again?

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