[b-hebrew] Is it right?

pporta at oham.net pporta at oham.net
Fri Oct 26 00:18:28 EDT 2007

> I see you took this off list.

PP - It has been a mistake

> On 10/25/07, pporta at oham.net <pporta at oham.net> wrote:
>> > Pere:
>> > On 10/25/07, pporta at oham.net <pporta at oham.net> wrote:
>> >> In Is 42:5 we find the word W:NW+YHM.
>> >> As it is, this is a Qal Participle, construct, plural masculine.
>> >> Should it not be in the singular, namely without yud?
>> >>
>> >> Or maybe this yud is important here?
>> >>
>> >> Pere Porta
>> >> Barcelona (Spain)
>> >
>> > This is a Qal singular participle with a third person plural suffix,
>> > from the verb N+H, treating $MYM as a plural.
>> _________
>> Then.... which is the purpose here of the letter yud after tet?  In a
>> general way it would show plural, not singular.  May we think this yud is 
>> a
>> "scribal" mistake?
>> Pere Porta
> No. Because the verb ends in a heh, a common practice is that the heh
> changes into a yod before a suffix. This does not change it to a
> plural, just a linguistic practice.
> Does that answer your question?

PP - No.
In Ps 115:8 (3rd word) there is a similar word which is in plural (yud = 
marker of plural)
In Zc 11:5 (2nd word): the same thing.

Beside the instance in Is 42:5, are there other similar cases in the Bible 
where yud is not a marker of plural but of singular?

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)

> Karl W. Randolph.

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