[b-hebrew] Historic reasons?

pporta at oham.net pporta at oham.net
Wed Oct 17 12:25:00 EDT 2007


>> In my study on Hebrew patterns I have remarked that as regards the Qal
>> imperfect 3rd person singular masculine or most transitive regular verbs 
>> the
>> Bible uses, in a general way, the short form (look at
>> www.oham.net/out/P-t/P-t189.html)  more often, by far,  than the long one
>> (look at www.oham.net/out/PI-t2/PI-t2-034.html).
>>
>> But this seems not to apply to the book of Job, where the long form seems 
>> to
>> be much more usual than the short one.
>>
>> I'm wondering whether there are any reasons (perhaps historic? others?) 
>> for
>> this.
>
> Your "long" and "short" forms appear to be not what Hebraists normally use 
> in
> reference to verbs.

Oh, yes. I mistook "long" for "male". Excuse me.

> Thus, the word
> thwm is pronounced toho:m with a short [o] after the t.

This word thwm ---- where does it appear (book, chapter, verse)?

Finally, you do not answer to my question: is there any especial reason to 
the fact that in Job the male is used instead of the defective?

Pere Porta

>
> Yitzhak Sapir
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