[b-hebrew] Historic reasons?

pporta at oham.net pporta at oham.net
Wed Oct 17 01:29:17 EDT 2007


In my study on Hebrew patterns I have remarked that as regards the Qal 
imperfect 3rd person singular masculine or most transitive regular verbs the 
Bible uses, in a general way, the short form (look at 
www.oham.net/out/P-t/P-t189.html)  more often, by far,  than the long one 
(look at www.oham.net/out/PI-t2/PI-t2-034.html).

But this seems not to apply to the book of Job, where the long form seems to 
be much more usual than the short one.

I'm wondering whether there are any reasons (perhaps historic? others?) for 
this.

I would appreciate your thoughts and/or comments.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain) 




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