[b-hebrew] psalm 51 and King David's sin
greifer at hotmail.com
Fri May 18 13:10:18 EDT 2007
I made a mistake in saying that David did not sin because I think his sin
was only a sin to G-d because G-d knew why David did it.
I think he killed a Hittite for his wife, and not for being a Hittite.
Technically, he might have been allowed to kill a Hittite even if the
Hittite believed in G-d. Also, I think the Hittite was not married legally
to Bathsheba since they were told not to marry Hittites, so technically, it
might not have been adultery.
Maybe David did not just take his wife away without killing him because it
would look bad (like an abuse of power.) Maybe he just decided to follow the
rule to kill Hittites for his own benefit.
>From: Peter Kirk <peter at qaya.org>
>To: kenneth greifer <greifer at hotmail.com>
>CC: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] psalm 51 and King David's sin
>Date: Fri, 18 May 2007 21:20:23 +0500
>On 18/05/2007 19:41, kenneth greifer wrote:
>>I believe that King David was human and sinned like other people. I am not
>>trying to prove that he was sinless. I just think that in this case he did
>In answer to you, Kenneth, and to the Talmud, we have to read David's own
>words, in Psalm 51, the very psalm in our subject line, in which he clearly
>says several times that he did sin in this matter. Of course this
>identification is based on the psalm title, which specifies David as the
>author and that he committed adultery. But it is backed up by 2 Samuel
>12:13 in which David confesses his sin. So the only way to deny that David
>sinned in this matter is to deny the authority of the very text which tells
>us the story. I wonder how the Talmud gets round this one and tries to
>claim that David was sinless.
>E-mail: peter at qaya.org
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