[b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect

Isaac Fried if at math.bu.edu
Thu May 17 11:59:07 EDT 2007


Pere,

I happen to think that the business of "short" and "long" vowels is  
baloney, ditto "qamas gadol" and "qamas qaton", ditto Schwa mobile  
and Schwa quiescent. The "qamas qaton" is just a popular override of  
A to O. Nowadays it is indeed common practice to add a VAV as in  
CIYPORIYM, 'birds', $IYBOLIYM, 'ears of grain', CIYPORNAYIM, 'finger  
nails'.

Isaac Fried, Boston University


On May 17, 2007, at 12:21 AM, <pporta at oham.net> <pporta at oham.net> wrote:

>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Brak" <Brak at neo.rr.com>
> To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Thursday, May 17, 2007 1:06 AM
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect of RBD
>
>
>> I had another question though
>> I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an
>> imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't  
>> explain
>> why it was done.
>> So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR
>>
>> So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and  
>> that
>> word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?
>
> _________
>
> John,
>
> it is not a qamas but a qamas qaton, thus read 'o' and not 'a'.  
> Namely, the
> long vowel (holem) becomes short (qamas qaton).
>
> Compare:
>
> LONG <> SHORT
>
> YI$:MOR (1Sa 2:9) becomes YI$:MFR-LFNW (Jer 5:24)
>
> It is a mere change of vowels, the meaning of the verb remaining  
> quite the
> same.
> This is why in the hasar haniqud (writing without vowels) a waw is  
> inserted
> in both.
>
> This happens not only with the particle NF) you're pointing out but  
> with
> other words one adds to the verb, usually by means of maqaf, in an  
> intimate
> union.
>
> Pere Porta
>
>
>
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