[b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect
if at math.bu.edu
Thu May 17 11:59:07 EDT 2007
I happen to think that the business of "short" and "long" vowels is
baloney, ditto "qamas gadol" and "qamas qaton", ditto Schwa mobile
and Schwa quiescent. The "qamas qaton" is just a popular override of
A to O. Nowadays it is indeed common practice to add a VAV as in
CIYPORIYM, 'birds', $IYBOLIYM, 'ears of grain', CIYPORNAYIM, 'finger
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On May 17, 2007, at 12:21 AM, <pporta at oham.net> <pporta at oham.net> wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Brak" <Brak at neo.rr.com>
> To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Thursday, May 17, 2007 1:06 AM
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect of RBD
>> I had another question though
>> I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an
>> imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't
>> why it was done.
>> So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR
>> So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and
>> word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?
> it is not a qamas but a qamas qaton, thus read 'o' and not 'a'.
> Namely, the
> long vowel (holem) becomes short (qamas qaton).
> LONG <> SHORT
> YI$:MOR (1Sa 2:9) becomes YI$:MFR-LFNW (Jer 5:24)
> It is a mere change of vowels, the meaning of the verb remaining
> quite the
> This is why in the hasar haniqud (writing without vowels) a waw is
> in both.
> This happens not only with the particle NF) you're pointing out but
> other words one adds to the verb, usually by means of maqaf, in an
> Pere Porta
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