[b-hebrew] Befuddled by NGD

Brak Brak at neo.rr.com
Wed Jul 25 02:28:14 EDT 2007


Yes. But my question is how are these related?
How does the concept of "opposite" relate to the concept of "to tell"?


B"H
John Steven

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you 
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.


pporta at oham.net wrote:

>>I have a question.
>>
>>Sometimes NGD is translated as "against" or "opposite" or "in front", to
>>which I can see the relationship between.
>>But other times it's translated as "tell" or "declare".
>>
>>I don't see the common link between the idea of "opposite" and "telling".
>>Can someone please help me understand the relationship between these 
>>ideas.
>>    
>>
>
>_________
>
>As a preposition, NGD means "against", "opposite", "in front of"...
>But as a verb, NGD means "to be conspicuous". Then the Hiph'il form of verb 
>NGD, which in its basic form is HGYD (look at Mi 6:8), means "to cause to be 
>conspicuous" ie "to declare", "to explain", "to tell".
>
>Pere 
>
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