[b-hebrew] Dinah raped?
klriley at alphalink.com.au
Thu Jul 19 21:23:58 EDT 2007
I've been thinking about this assumption that because the Levitical laws
state that a girl should be a virgin at marriage, therefore that is what all
Israelite girls were. Are we not assuming too much - given the data from
the rest of Scripture - when we assume that all - or even most - Israelites
actually lived in obedience to the laws? Does it not call into question the
many condemnations of Israel in the historical and prophetic books for
following pagan customs? Do we have any evidence for the culture actually
enforcing the ban on extra-marital sex, apart form the law codes?
From: Harold Holmyard
Date: 20/07/2007 9:06:51 AM
> Hi Micheal,
> this is something I've thought about before in the past.
> There doesn't seem to be any linguistic evidence that I've
> seen that indicates any element of force. Dinah went to
> see him. Not him to Dinah.
HH:The text does not say that Dinah went to see him. She went out to see
The "daughters of the land." They might include Shechem's relatives.
> Also it would take an incredibly
> stupid bloke, when approached by a recently victim's brother,
> that would believe the proposition 'If you cut your foreskin
> off I'll let you marry my sister'.
HH: The Canaanites were sexually immoral, so they would not necessarily
See the proposition as insincere.
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