[b-hebrew] Prophetic Past in Isaiah 9:6(5)

Gary Hedrick garyh at cjfm.org
Mon Feb 5 21:12:48 EST 2007


            The Jewish Study Bible says the past tense verbs in Isaiah 9:6
(actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew text) could be an example of a "prophetic
past."  That is, the verse is actually a future messianic prophecy and the
verbs are in the past tense because these future events "are as good as
done" (p. 801).  Could someone give me a few examples of this Hebrew
"prophetic past" in other passages besides Isaiah 9?

            I know we have had extended discussions here about Hebrew tenses
and my intention here is not to open up that whole can of worms once again.
So perhaps I should rephrase the question like this: Could someone on this
list who believes there is such a thing as a "prophetic past" tense in
Hebrew please provide me with an example or two of this phenomenon in the
Hebrew Bible?

 

Gary Hedrick

San Antonio, Texas USA

garyh at cjfm.org 

 




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