[b-hebrew] final alef
uhurwitz at yahoo.com
Sat Aug 18 18:37:14 EDT 2007
As to the relationship between the two homonyms LO (lamed aleph -
"NO"), and LO (lamed waw -- "TO HIM"), here again it pays to consult
Arabic , because, like in so many other cases, it preserves earlier stages
of the language. The spelling of "NO" in Ar.-- "LA," is the equivalent of the
Heb.lamed aleph, while the spelling of "TO HIM" is --LaHW pronounced
"Lahu". Obviously the "H" was dropped by the time of the consonsntal text
of the HB.
Interestingly the same occurs in some spoken Arabic dialects.
Yigal Levin wrote:
I tend to agree - the aleph is there because it was
meant to be pronounced as a gluttal stop (not as a
"silent letter"). From both the Bible and especially
inscriptions, it would seem that the mater lectionis
that was used for the final "O" (once these entered
Hebrew orthography) was actually he (as preserved
in names such as "Shiloh" and "Shelomoh"). Also,
what's the relationship between l) (lamed aleph)
and l)w (lamed aleph waw)? Is the former an
abbreviation of the latter? Or was l) spelt with
an aleph to distinguish it from its homonym lw
(lamed waw) - "for/to him"?
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