[b-hebrew] Language, Culture or Both? was Nostratic
yitzhaksapir at gmail.com
Sat Apr 28 14:18:03 EDT 2007
On 4/19/07, Yitzhak Sapir wrote:
> > Finally, on a historical basis is that the Medeo-Persian Empire was the
> > first non-Semitic empire.
> There was a Persian empire, not a Medeo-Persian Empire. Also, there was a
> Mitanni Empire, an Indo-Iranian empire centered in northern Mesopotamia that
> flourished from about 1500 BCE to 1360 BCE.
The above description of Mitanni is taken from Encyclopedia Britannica.
However, the following comment was made on ANE-2 regarding the description
by Encyclopedia Britannica. The purpose is not to bring up this rather old and
relatively marginal comment but only to correct that original comment given the
related discussion on ANE-2. While Mitanni was not an Indo-Aryan empire,
it was still not "ethnically" Semitic. So here is the quote:
"I'm afraid the sentences quoted from Wikipedia and Britannica are old flotsam
from a period when Aryans were regarded as overlords and other people as
"subjects". ... It is really an enigma how the old German idea of Aryan
"supremacy" in Mittani (and an Aryan origin of the Mittanian empire) has been
able to survive for so long."
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