[b-hebrew] verb forms - Isaiah 56:6-7 was dying you shall die

Isaac Fried if at math.bu.edu
Thu Apr 19 00:01:23 EDT 2007


I am sorry to put it bluntly, but it seems to me that only a blind  
man would not agree that:



Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Apr 18, 2007, at 11:11 PM, Yonah Mishael wrote:

> Peter,
> I fail to see how the terminations -/é/ or -/í/ of the preterite and
> -/o/ of the present tense in Spanish can both refer to the same
> first-person /yo/. I don't see how the -/aste/ or -/iste/ termination
> of the second-person preteriste can be traced to the pronounce -/tú/.
> Does one have to go into the proto-languages to view this stage in
> development? If so, then it is still mostly conjectural, since there
> is no example of any Proto-Indo-European language at play anywhere in
> real world. It is a reconstruction (as even you state) rather than a
> practical demonstration.
> I agree that terminations are connected to pronouns, of course. But, I
> just have a hard time seeing as direct a connection as Isaac is
> suggesting, to the point that the actual pronoun was originally fused
> to the final part of the word in some form. Perhaps with more
> investigation and openmindedness I will come to agree with Isaac, but
> where I am right now, I just cannot imagine it being so simply at the
> base.
> Yours,
> Yonah Mishael
> Joplin, MO
> On 4/18/07, Peter Kirk <peter at qaya.org> wrote:
>> Yonah, you can't see this clearly in Latin because the fusion  
>> actually
>> took place much earlier. If you look back at reconstructed
>> Proto-Indo-European, see the examples I gave earlier, the
>> correspondences are much more clear. Despite what Uri wrote, that  
>> "this
>> is the realm of sheer speculation", this is in fact as clearly
>> demonstrated as anything can be from the remote past. This is how
>> language works, even if you have to look a bit beyond Latin 101 to  
>> see it.
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