[b-hebrew] verb forms - Isaiah 56:6-7 was dying you shall die

Yonah Mishael yonahmishael at gmail.com
Wed Apr 18 23:11:02 EDT 2007


Peter,

I fail to see how the terminations -/é/ or -/í/ of the preterite and
-/o/ of the present tense in Spanish can both refer to the same
first-person /yo/. I don't see how the -/aste/ or -/iste/ termination
of the second-person preteriste can be traced to the pronounce -/tú/.
Does one have to go into the proto-languages to view this stage in
development? If so, then it is still mostly conjectural, since there
is no example of any Proto-Indo-European language at play anywhere in
real world. It is a reconstruction (as even you state) rather than a
practical demonstration.

I agree that terminations are connected to pronouns, of course. But, I
just have a hard time seeing as direct a connection as Isaac is
suggesting, to the point that the actual pronoun was originally fused
to the final part of the word in some form. Perhaps with more
investigation and openmindedness I will come to agree with Isaac, but
where I am right now, I just cannot imagine it being so simply at the
base.

Yours,
Yonah Mishael
Joplin, MO

On 4/18/07, Peter Kirk <peter at qaya.org> wrote:
> Yonah, you can't see this clearly in Latin because the fusion actually
> took place much earlier. If you look back at reconstructed
> Proto-Indo-European, see the examples I gave earlier, the
> correspondences are much more clear. Despite what Uri wrote, that "this
> is the realm of sheer speculation", this is in fact as clearly
> demonstrated as anything can be from the remote past. This is how
> language works, even if you have to look a bit beyond Latin 101 to see it.


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