[b-hebrew] New or Renewed in Jeremiah 31:31?

Shoshanna Walker rosewalk at concentric.net
Fri Apr 13 16:36:35 EDT 2007

No, actually G-d had the Torah before it was given formally to 
Israel.  Thus, the laws weren't different, the righteous of all the 
previous generations received and knew it - as the Torah itself 
proves by testifying to the fact that Noach already knew which the 
permitted, ie; "clean" animals were.

All your quotes are testimony to this.


HH: The Mosaic covenant was certainly a conduit of God's law and the
expression of it which Israel was obliged to keep. That covenant was the
vehicle by which he chose to communicate his law to Israel. But God had
laws before there ever was a Mosaic covenant:

Gen. 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my
commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
Ex. 16:4 Then the LORD said to Moses, Behold, I will rain bread from
heaven for you; and the people should go out and gather a certain amount
every day, that I may test them, whether they will walk in my law, or not.

HH: Remember that Exodus 16 is prior to the arrival at Sinai and before
the institution of the Mosaic covenant. The people were in the
wilderness of Sin at that time:

Ex. 16:1  The whole Israelite community set out from Elim and came to
the Desert of Sin, which is between Elim and Sinai, on the fifteenth day
of the second month after they had come out of Egypt.

HH: They did not reach Sinai until Exodus 19:

Ex. 19:1 In the third month, when the children of Israel were gone forth
out of the land of Egypt, the same day came they into the wilderness of

HH: So God had a law before the Mosaic covenant.

Harold Holmyard

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