[b-hebrew] New or Renewed in Jeremiah 31:31?

Harold Holmyard hholmyard3 at earthlink.net
Fri Apr 13 13:45:39 EDT 2007


Dear Yohanan and Isaac,
>  Isaac: Then, why do you write 'dawidh'
> (as in "Shlomo bin-Dawidh", apparently SHLOMO BEN DAVID) with a final 'h'?"
>
>
> Yohanan: As to writing a dhaleth as "dh", this too is how I have always done, and I
> have never thought about the reason why. And, yes, Shlomo bin-Dawidh is
> "Shlomo ben David".
>   

One reason for the "dh" is that this is a way of representing a Begad 
Kephath letter D without a dagesh. The name "David" normally has a 
dagesh in the initial D but none in the second. The "dh" transliteration 
can signal that fact.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard



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