[b-hebrew] verb forms - Isaiah 56:6-7 was dying you shall die
peter at qaya.org
Thu Apr 12 11:11:15 EDT 2007
On 12/04/2007 15:59, K Randolph wrote:
> My purpose is not to discuss the Greek verbal system. Rather to
> discuss the use of translations as a guide to understanding Hebrew.
> Seeing as it is demonstrable that some of the authors of the New
> Testament had less than a literary command of the Greek language, and
> I suspect the same is true of some of the LXX translators, could the
> use of the grammatical future tense have been understood by those
> authors as something other than the future (e.g. continuous present)?
> If so, how far can we use those translations as a guide as to how
> those people understood the Hebrew language?
Well, Karl, it is an interesting possibility that some people of Semitic
background used the Greek future, at least when translating Semitic
materials, not so much as a future tense but with more of the aspectual
meaning which Gesenius and I are describing for the Hebrew YIQTOL. But I
don't know if this has been proved, or even of any real evidence for it,
such as if a clearly non-future YIQTOL were translated with a Greek
future in LXX etc.
E-mail: peter at qaya.org
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