[b-hebrew] Zech 1:19,21

Shoshanna Walker rosewalk at concentric.net
Tue Apr 10 20:24:56 EDT 2007


There was no Israel????

Then define what you mean by "Israel", because as we all know, Israel 
as an entity, existed from the time that G-d named it, with no 
interruption.

Shoshanna


>Dear Steve,
>
>I'm not sure if I'll manage to answer your questions, but Karl has already
>addressed them. As he wrote, in a sequence such as "Judah, Israel and
>Jerusalem", there is no need to insert "and" between every item. My
>additional question would be - to what "Israel" is the author referring?
>Presumably, Zechariah lived in Persian-period Judah. There was no "Israel".
>He could have been using "Israel" to mean Judah, but the "Judah" is
>redundant.
>
>
>As far as "yadu", the verb is not the same as the one that means ìpraiseî,
>ìgive thanksî, or ìconfessî. Like in Jer. 50:14 and Lam. 3:53, it means "to
>throw". It seems to be derived from "yad", "hand", literally "to hand"
>(although not meaning, as in English, "to give").
>
>Yigal Levin
>
>
>
>
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 at sbcglobal.net>
>To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
>Sent: Tuesday, April 10, 2007 1:51 AM
>Subject: [b-hebrew] Zech 1:19,21
>
>
>> Zech 1:19 (2:2 MT)  last phrase ñ ìscattered Judah, Israel and Jerusalem.î
>>
>> ʉ¯Âà ý™‘È¿”ÂÓ»” ý™‘ÈŸ˜"¿¯»ý‰Ï ŸȯÂØ-»Ï»ÕÌ"
>>
>> 1)     There is no ìandî prefix in front of Israel. Without the ìandî in
>> front of Israel, does this mean Israel is not another element in the list,
>> but is in apposition to ìJudahî?
>>
>>
>>
>> 2)     Is there any significance that ìetî, which points to the direct
>> object, precedes Judah and Israel, but not Jerusalem?
>>
>>
>>
>> Zech 1:21 (2:4 MT) end phrase ìthese are come to affright them, to cast
>> out
>> the horns of the nations that lifted up a horn over the land of Judah to
>> scatter it.î
>>
>> «Èû·ŠýÂà ý‰ÏД Ï¿”«Á¬¯ŸÈ“ ýŠ™»Ì Ï¿È«“ʙ ý™‘—«¯¿•ŠÂ™ ”«’ÊÂÈŸÌ
>>
>>
>>
>> 1)Note that there is no ìandî before the infinitive form of the verb
>> ìyadahî. In the above translation: ìto cast out the horns of the nationsî
>> is
>> in apposition to ìto affright themî. But that doesnít make sense because
>> these are 2 different actions.  When an infinitive verb follows the
>> causative verb ìmake them afraidî, the meaning, everywhere I can find, is
>> to
>> ìto make them afraid to do xxxxxxxî. So in this case, I think it should be
>> partially translated, ìthese are come to make them extremely afraid to
>> ëyadahí the horns of the nations.î (1 Sam 21:1; Exo 3:6;34:30; Num 12:8).
>> Does this make sense?
>>
>>
>>
>> 2) The verb ìyadahî is the root of the name Judah, which appears twice in
>> this verse. The verb is very common in the hiphil, where it means ìpraiseî,
>> ìgive thanksî, or ìconfessî.  The verb appears only once in the Qal, where
>> it is translated ìshoot atî in Jer 50:14. That seems like a very different
>> meaning than the Hiphil. It appears 2 times in the Piel: once here in Zech
>> 1:21, and the other place is Lam 3:53, where it is translated ìcastî as in
>> ìcast a stone upon meî.
>> I would like to translate ìyadahî here in Zech 1:21 as ìpraiseî, or
>>  ìexaltî,
>> so that the phrase would say, ìThese are come to make them [the nations]
>> afraid of exalting the horns of the nations that lifted up Öî. Is this
>> permissible?
>>
>>
>> Thank you.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> -Steve Miller
>>
>> Detroit
>>
>> www.voiceInWilderness.info
>>
>> Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but prove the spirits whether they
>> are
>> of God,
>>
>> because many false prophets have gone out into the world. (1 John 4:1)
>>
>>
>>
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>
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