[b-hebrew] Gesenius on Femininity

Vadim Cherny VadimCherny at mail.ru
Thu Sep 28 01:36:35 EDT 2006


> > I'm of course aware of the orthodox etymology. It doesn't make much
sense;
> > why the tav-form? Presumably, tav-nouns are frozen 2ms future tense
verbs,
> > the least likely form for "to teach."
> > Derivation from tor - tur is plain; see Prov12:26, etc; admonition.
> >
> > Vadim Cherny
>
> So, I guess feminine noun forms with a T prefix just do not fit
> regularly into your system?

No such implication at all. When a verb is commonly employed as 2ms FT or
imperative, it may be frozen as a tav-noun, and eventually acquire suffix
hey, either fem or of result, or destinative. The particulaw word, torah, is
semantically unrelated to the 2ms.

> An even more analogous form is תודה TWDH, which comes from YDH / YDY.
> Are you going to suggest that "thanks" comes from a different root,
> perhaps TWD? If the form TWRH does not come from YRH because of its
> form, then you should perhaps also argue that TWDH does not come from
> YDH. The cases are the same.

You might consider tuz, twz (Aramaic ntz), to get off. Hebrew todah is
straightforwardly semantically related.
Anyway, Occam's Razor isn't unambiguous. In my opinion, tur - torah is the
simplest derivation both semantically and morphologically. There is no way
to formally prove either point of view.

Vadim Cherny




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