[b-hebrew] b-hebrew Digest, Vol 45, Issue 23 name

Yonah Mishael yonahmishael at gmail.com
Fri Sep 15 23:19:10 EDT 2006

Yeshua does *not* mean "Ye is salvation." It is a name ישוע [yeshua']
that is related to the root "to deliver, save" ישע [yod shin ayin],
which is generally found in the hiphil binyan. The noun for
"salvation" is ישועה [yeshu'ah], and it is feminine. The form
יהושע\יהושוע can derive from "Yah has saved," יה הושיע [yah hoshia'],
but "Yeshua" does *not* bear the name of God as a semanteme.

As per the Nazor-Olam: I relayed to you already how it doesn't make
sense to assume that Jesus was a Nazir/Nazirite because he came
"drinking and eating" and was called a "drunkard" according to the New
Testament. A Nazir cannot drink any alcohol at all. Maybe John the
Baptizer or James the Just had taken some kind of Nazirite vow, but
surely Jesus did NOT and could not be qualified as a Nazir.


On 9/15/06, thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com
<thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com> wrote:
> Thanks for all the imput, This has really helped.
> I now have another question, If Ye'shua the Messiah (christ) the
> Nazor-Owlam (my interperation) came in his father's Name
> John 5:43 I am come in my Father's Name, and ye receive me not: if
> another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.
> What part of the Name is the Father's name? all or part? Ye'shua means
> Ye is salvation.  Messiah ? is that part of the Father's name? and
> Nazor can mean Holy set apart for special service etc/(our Father who
> art in heaven holy is The Name,(SOU))Nazor whould be in my
> understanding the most Holy part of his name?,,,,, comments, help to
> clarify
> Owlem for this age.(my interperation)
> Eva Ritsema
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Yonah Mishael ben Avraham
Joplin, MO
yonahmishael at gmail.com

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