[b-hebrew] actual Hebrew question about Daniel 9:25

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Mon Sep 11 15:41:11 EDT 2006


What you mention below is the most common pattern that I have
discovered. But like any linguistic pattern, there are exceptions to
the rule, and there are some where I have no idea how they fit any
pattern. The majority of such terms I have yet to analyse. There may
be other rules that I have yet to discover.

As for the seven sevens and 62 sevens, were they concurrent with one
ending before the other, or did one follow the other? The text can be
read either way, though I think the concurrent reading is preferable.

My understanding is that when a time interval with a number is
mentioned in Tanakh, that it meant exactly that time interval. Other
intervals, without a number, may be expanded or contracted, include
gaps or whatsuch, but not a numbered sequence. To have a seventieth
seven break free and be floating therefore does not make sense.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 9/9/06, Steve Miller <smille10 at sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> > From: kenneth greifer Sent: Wednesday, September 06, 2006 9:49 PM
> >
> > I was really hoping that someone would answer the question about the order
> > of the number and nouns in Hebrew because I am confused about that.
> >
> [Steve Miller] First, I have a question for Karl: The word for weeks here in
> Daniel is masculine, but the word is feminine every place else. (Except for
> Lev. 2:5, where it is masculine in order to use the dual plural suffix. The
> dual plural only comes in masculine.) (The Daniel usages are 9:24-26 &
> 10:2,3. 10:2-3 says "weeks of days" explicitly.)
> I had noted that you found that when a normally masculine noun occurs in the
> feminine, the feminine occurrence is an abstraction of the normal meaning of
> the noun. Is there something similar for a normally feminine noun which
> occurs in the masculine? Thanks.
> ...
> -----------------------------------------------------------------------
> -Steve Miller
> Detroit
> www.voiceinwilderness.info

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