[b-hebrew] actual Hebrew question about Daniel 9:25

Harold Holmyard hholmyard at ont.com
Wed Sep 6 19:46:51 EDT 2006


Dear Kenneth,

>Can the word "weeks" in Hebrew actually mean 7 days , so the 70 weeks could 
>be 70 regular weeks possibly? Also, in Daniel 9:25 it says "weeks 7" and 
>"weeks 62". In Hebrew, wouldn't it usually be written with the number before 
>the noun? Are numbers written after the noun in other quotes besides these 
>in Daniel? 
>  
>

HH: Yes, it can refer to a week of days. But it does not mean that here 
in Daniel 9. Check verse 27. Do you suppose the man makes a covenant 
with many people intended to last seven days? Then he breaks it after 
three-and-a-half days? This seems absurd. Also, too many events have to 
unfold in too short a time if the seventy weeks are days. And as I said, 
the framework of time is to the end of the age (v. 24). This becomes 
more apparent in chapter 12, where the half week of 9:27 is described as 
a time, times, and half a time (12:7). This general figure is also 
clarified in terms of 1,290 days (12:11). Roughly these same terms 
appear in Revelation 12.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

>
>  
>




More information about the b-hebrew mailing list