[b-hebrew] Infinitive absolute -the reference
kwrandolph at gmail.com
Tue Oct 31 11:36:28 EST 2006
The infinite absolute is in verse 28. In verse 29, the verb is merely
an imperfective. While that doesn't get the ox off the hook because of
the context of verse 28, that the owner should be executed as well is
not an infinite absolute, therefore the possibility of being commuted
to a fine, as in verse 30.
As for the example in Jeremiah, all people have acted imperfectly,
therefore none can stand before him. This is God acting, giving a
Are there any other examples?
Karl W. Randolph.
On 10/30/06, Chris and Nel <wattswestmaas at eircom.net> wrote:
> Karl and Jonah and others?
> Here are the references which he gives (unfortunately I can not get hold of
> .....see jer 3:12-13; Buss, 'Distinction between Civil Law and Criminal
> Law', esp pages 55-57 (proceedings of the sixth world congree of Jewish
> studies - Jerusalem: academic press 1977; 1: 51-62.
> However he does have a point, because as I have read in verse 30 of Exodus
> 21:28-36, how can we justify verse 30 in the light of the Infinitive
> Absolute in verse 28?
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