[b-hebrew] After she had eaten, after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf Const with fem suffix versus infconst without?

Yigal Levin leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il
Sat Oct 21 13:45:18 EDT 2006


Dear Chris,

It would seem that from a grammatical point of view, all of the 
interpretations are possible. So it's a matter of context. Why do you assume 
that "drinking" means alcohol (and why the capital A?)? And if it does, why 
do you think that anyone who drank was drunk (that is, intoxicated)? True, 
she later assured Eli that she was not drunk, but that does NOT mean that 
she did not partake some of the wine as part of the feast - if indeed there 
was any wine at all.

We must be careful not to allow our pre-conceptions to cloud our 
interpretations. There might have been alcoholic drinks at early Israelite 
sacral feasts, but we do not know. And if there were - that does not mean 
that they all went home drunk.

Yigal Levin


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas at eircom.net>
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, October 20, 2006 9:41 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] After she had eaten,after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf 
Const with fem suffix versus infconst without?


> There seems to be disagreement between my textual workbook and some
> translations and the Jewish interpretation concerning specifically the 
> word
> "AaCHLaH",  alternative infinitive construct, or Infinitive construct with
> 3rd person fem suffix.
>
> The two interpretations are:
> 1. after the eating and the drinking in Shiloh
> 2. After she had eaten and drunk in Shiloh
>
> I dissagree with both and propose what seems to me the most rational
> ie...... After her eating in Shiloh and after the drinking.
>
> MEANING:  She had eaten BUT the drinking refers to Alchohol which She did
> not drink.  In other words there was drunkeness in Shiloh. But that Hannah
> had indeed eaten but not fully participated in family affairs at that
> moment.
>
> It seems that this, for me at least, is explained by TWO things:
> 1.  The verb SHaToH (drink) in  Inf Absolute????? while "eat" is in Inf
> const.
> 2. Word order where "in Shiloh" seems to be strategically placed before 
> the
> drinking.
>
> I would appreciate your comments, corrections etc.
>
> Chris Watts
> Ireland.
>
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