[b-hebrew] After she had eaten, after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf Const with fem suffix versus inf const without?

Chris and Nel wattswestmaas at eircom.net
Fri Oct 20 15:41:59 EDT 2006


There seems to be disagreement between my textual workbook and some
translations and the Jewish interpretation concerning specifically the word
"AaCHLaH",  alternative infinitive construct, or Infinitive construct with
3rd person fem suffix.

The two interpretations are:
1. after the eating and the drinking in Shiloh
2. After she had eaten and drunk in Shiloh

I dissagree with both and propose what seems to me the most rational
ie...... After her eating in Shiloh and after the drinking.

MEANING:  She had eaten BUT the drinking refers to Alchohol which She did
not drink.  In other words there was drunkeness in Shiloh. But that Hannah
had indeed eaten but not fully participated in family affairs at that
moment.

It seems that this, for me at least, is explained by TWO things:
1.  The verb SHaToH (drink) in  Inf Absolute????? while "eat" is in Inf
const.
2. Word order where "in Shiloh" seems to be strategically placed before the
drinking.

I would appreciate your comments, corrections etc.

Chris Watts
Ireland.




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