[b-hebrew] After she had eaten, after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf Const with fem suffix versus inf const without?
Chris and Nel
wattswestmaas at eircom.net
Fri Oct 20 15:41:59 EDT 2006
There seems to be disagreement between my textual workbook and some
translations and the Jewish interpretation concerning specifically the word
"AaCHLaH", alternative infinitive construct, or Infinitive construct with
3rd person fem suffix.
The two interpretations are:
1. after the eating and the drinking in Shiloh
2. After she had eaten and drunk in Shiloh
I dissagree with both and propose what seems to me the most rational
ie...... After her eating in Shiloh and after the drinking.
MEANING: She had eaten BUT the drinking refers to Alchohol which She did
not drink. In other words there was drunkeness in Shiloh. But that Hannah
had indeed eaten but not fully participated in family affairs at that
It seems that this, for me at least, is explained by TWO things:
1. The verb SHaToH (drink) in Inf Absolute????? while "eat" is in Inf
2. Word order where "in Shiloh" seems to be strategically placed before the
I would appreciate your comments, corrections etc.
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