[b-hebrew] LXX, MT and the NT

Mark Spitsbergen awakesd at earthlink.net
Tue Oct 17 13:27:01 EDT 2006


There are examples of quotations in the New Testament that depart from both
the Septuagint and the MT.  One such example is found in Acts 2:16-21
wherein the Septuagint is an excellent translation of the Hebrew, except for
perhaps the prepositional use of 'APO' to translate the partitive use of the
Hebrew 'MIN', but the New Testament takes on a uniqueness all of its own.
Without going into all of the details please allow me to say that the
variations do not amount to much. In all, when we look at these data
presented by all variants in the LXX the MT and the NT the population is
clearly less than 10%, which I am certain would be rejected as significant
by any statistical model. If we were then to define a qualitative threshold
of significance as being a word or phrase that changes God's message to man
then we would be quibbling about some fraction of a percent. I really am
scratching my head at this point as to what this lengthy "smoothing
argument" is really all about. Is this argument really in the interest of
discovering truth?

Shalom

Mark Spitsbergen





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