[b-hebrew] Septuagint vs Hebrew, effect on Christianity

dwashbur at nyx.net dwashbur at nyx.net
Sun Oct 15 23:57:53 EDT 2006

In Isaiah's culture, wouldn't such a woman have been assumed to be a virgin?

On 15 Oct 2006 at 23:34, Shoshanna Walker wrote:

> No, alma referred to a woman who had not been married.  Also today, 
> the modern word that everyone translates as virgin ie; Betula, or 
> betulta in Aramaic, refers for legal purposes in the Ketuba, marriage 
> contract, not to a virgin, but to a woman who has not been married 
> before.
> Shoshanna
> >Actually the documentaries on tv plus the museum visits I've taken allow me
> >to assume exactly that the word "parquenos" translated "virgin" into English
> >did not mean a celibate female.  That idea was not even a popular
> >consideration in those days.  I didn't know the Greek word so thanks for the
> >verification.  I also visited Pompeii which gave me wonderful insight into
> >the world of the bible.  In one room in the Vatican, I stood in the "Mary"
> >room where they created the modern definition of almah/parquenos.  So I
> >can't even blame us Jews, now, can I?
> >
> >Just an amusing aside about my Vatican visit:  I asked the Guide why the
> >room I happened to be standing in was decorated with "magen davids".  He
> >smiled indulgently "They are not magen davids, they are six pointed stars,
> >intertwined triangles.  Triangles are an ancient symbol for truth."  I don't
> >recall the name of the room, something to do with knowledge IIRC.
> >
> >Now that we're approaching the winter solstice season, the Maccabees books
> >are extremely pertinent to the ambiance of the words almah/parquenos:)  I
> >think more in terms of "wild girls" which I found to be how teenage girls
> >were considered by the Greeks and probably every other male back then:)
> >
> >I think people don't really read Torah today as they should.  Otherwise they
> >would know that there wasn't such a thing as monogamy back then and that
> >only married women committed adultery:)  Actually, the wife was a
> >designation for inheritance only and like the top dog in the harem??
> >
> >Message: 1
> >Date: Sat, 14 Oct 2006 22:31:46 -0500
> >From: "Yonah Mishael" <yonahmishael at gmail.com>
> >Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Septuagint vs Hebrew, effect on Christianity
> >To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
> >Message-ID:
> ><4b24a3090610142031h5c326199ka46a754302588701 at mail.gmail.com>
> >Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed
> >
> >You assume, I guess - though you didn't spell it out, that the Greek
> >???????? PARQENOS means "virgin." In classical Greek, the word does
> >*not* mean "virgin." It is a common word for "girl," nearly synonymous
> >with the ???? KORH. According to the classical definition, the Greek
> >PARQENOS and the Hebrew ???? (LMH have nearly the same semantic range.
> >
> >The question is what the LXX translator intended. Did he intend the
> >reader to take PARQENOS as "maiden" or "girl" per the older meaning,
> >or did he intend the meaning "virgin" -- which was taken from a more
> >religious sphere, as it refered to the Vestal Virgins (who were really
> >no virgins at all).
> >
> >My own supposition is that the translator of the LXX did *not* intend
> >PARQENOS to be understood as "virgin." And the fact that they used
> >that term does not indicate their belief or disbelief in any "virgin
> >birth." The term is far more flexible that this.
> >
> >Shalom,
> >Yonah
> >
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Dave Washburn
"Mom, are we Republicrats or Demolicans?"

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