[b-hebrew] Septuagint vs Hebrew, effect on Christianity

Shoshanna Walker rosewalk at concentric.net
Sun Oct 15 23:34:05 EDT 2006


No, alma referred to a woman who had not been married.  Also today, 
the modern word that everyone translates as virgin ie; Betula, or 
betulta in Aramaic, refers for legal purposes in the Ketuba, marriage 
contract, not to a virgin, but to a woman who has not been married 
before.

Shoshanna



>Actually the documentaries on tv plus the museum visits I've taken allow me
>to assume exactly that the word "parquenos" translated "virgin" into English
>did not mean a celibate female.  That idea was not even a popular
>consideration in those days.  I didn't know the Greek word so thanks for the
>verification.  I also visited Pompeii which gave me wonderful insight into
>the world of the bible.  In one room in the Vatican, I stood in the "Mary"
>room where they created the modern definition of almah/parquenos.  So I
>can't even blame us Jews, now, can I?
>
>Just an amusing aside about my Vatican visit:  I asked the Guide why the
>room I happened to be standing in was decorated with "magen davids".  He
>smiled indulgently "They are not magen davids, they are six pointed stars,
>intertwined triangles.  Triangles are an ancient symbol for truth."  I don't
>recall the name of the room, something to do with knowledge IIRC.
>
>Now that we're approaching the winter solstice season, the Maccabees books
>are extremely pertinent to the ambiance of the words almah/parquenos:)  I
>think more in terms of "wild girls" which I found to be how teenage girls
>were considered by the Greeks and probably every other male back then:)
>
>I think people don't really read Torah today as they should.  Otherwise they
>would know that there wasn't such a thing as monogamy back then and that
>only married women committed adultery:)  Actually, the wife was a
>designation for inheritance only and like the top dog in the harem??
>
>Message: 1
>Date: Sat, 14 Oct 2006 22:31:46 -0500
>From: "Yonah Mishael" <yonahmishael at gmail.com>
>Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Septuagint vs Hebrew, effect on Christianity
>To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
>Message-ID:
><4b24a3090610142031h5c326199ka46a754302588701 at mail.gmail.com>
>Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed
>
>You assume, I guess - though you didn't spell it out, that the Greek
>???????? PARQENOS means "virgin." In classical Greek, the word does
>*not* mean "virgin." It is a common word for "girl," nearly synonymous
>with the ???? KORH. According to the classical definition, the Greek
>PARQENOS and the Hebrew ???? (LMH have nearly the same semantic range.
>
>The question is what the LXX translator intended. Did he intend the
>reader to take PARQENOS as "maiden" or "girl" per the older meaning,
>or did he intend the meaning "virgin" -- which was taken from a more
>religious sphere, as it refered to the Vestal Virgins (who were really
>no virgins at all).
>
>My own supposition is that the translator of the LXX did *not* intend
>PARQENOS to be understood as "virgin." And the fact that they used
>that term does not indicate their belief or disbelief in any "virgin
>birth." The term is far more flexible that this.
>
>Shalom,
>Yonah
>
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